NFSU Section Officer Question Paper
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1 Window Dressing implies
A) curtailment of expenses
B) checking wastage
C) under valuation of assets
D) over valuation of assets
2 What is the Contribution per month under CGHS for employees in Pay Level 12 and above?
A) Rs 1250
B) Rs 1000
C) Rs 650
D) Rs 1500
3 What is maximum number of days of encashment of cash equivalent of leave salary for both earned leave and half pay leave payable to a retired Government Servant?
A) 360 days
B) 300 days
C) 240 days
D) 700 days
4 Rates/ceiling of Children Education Allowance (CEA) would be automatically raised by _____ % every time the Dearness Allowance on the revised pay structure goes up by ____%?
A) 10% and 25%
B) 25% and 50%
C) 50% and 100%
D) None of the above
5 Encashment of earned leave of up to 10 days at the time of availing LTC is permitted, provided a balance of______ days of EL is available at the credit of a Government servant.
A) 180 days
B) 45 days
C) 30 days
D) 300 days
6 GPF (CS) Rules 1960 shall not apply to Government servant appointed on or after?
A) 1st January 2006
B) 1st July 2005
C) 1st January 2004
D) 7th December 2003
7 Numerical grading to be awarded by reporting and reviewing authorities in APAR is on a scale of?
A) 0 to 10
B) 1 to 100
C) 1 to 10
D) 1 to 5
8 APARs graded between 8 and 10 will be rated as?
A) very good
B) outstanding
C) extra outstanding
D) good
9 Joining time is not allowed in case of
A) Temporary transfer for a period up to 180 days
B) Temporary transfer for a period more than 180 days
C) Permanent transfer
D) Transfer on Punishment
10 In case of air travel maximum joining time available is:-
A) 10 days
B) 12 days
C) 15 days
D) 7 days
11 What was the Moto decided for NCC in October 1980
A) Unity for Discipline
B) National Service is a Pride
C) Unity for Run
D) Service to the Nation
12 If the official is relieved of old post in the afternoon of a day, the joining time commences from:-
A) The same days
B) The next day
C) The next working day
D) third day from the date of relieving
13 A Government servant seeking voluntary retirement is required under rule 48 (A) to give to the Appointing Authority a notice of:-
A) At least one month
B) At least two months
C) At least three months
D) At least six months
14 The qualifying service of an employee, who opts for voluntary retirement after completion of 30 years of service, shall be increased by-
A) 2 years
B) 3 years
C) 4 years
D) 5 years
15 Dearness allowance is to considered for calculation of:
A) Pension
B) Commuted value of pension
C) Gratuity
D) Family Pension
16 Full form of GFR is
A) General Forest Regulations
B) General Financial Rules
C) Goods of Foreign Regulations
D) Goods & Services Regulations
17 Which is not considered as a suspected material fraud or irregularity of serious nature involving public funds
A) Expenditure on reparing of building andmaintainance
B) Wasteful expenditure
C) loss of revenue due to irregularities in business
D) loss of revenue which exceeds the monitory limit prescribed by C&AG
18 The C&AG of India undertakes audit which are broadly categorised as
A) Financial Audit, Compliance Audit and Performance Audit
B) Civil audit, Commercial audit, Railway audit and P&T audit
C) Receipt audit, expenditure audit and grant audit
D) Annual Financial Audit
19 Excess or savings are shown in which account/s: - (i) appropriation accounts (ii) finance accounts
A) number (i) of the statement
B) number (ii) of the statement
C) both (i) (ii) of the statement
D) neither (i) or (ii) above
20 Who won the Femina Miss India 2023 pageant?
A) Nandini Gupta
B) Shalini Bansal
C) Meenakshi Malik
D) Sheela Das
21 The theme for International Women's Day 2023 was _______.
A) Gender Equality Today for a Sustainable Tomorrow
B) Digit ALL: Innovation and technology for gender equality
C) Each for Equal
D) Technology for gender equality
22 Fill in the blank with the correctly spelt word.: No one is ______ to the organisation.
A) indispansable
B) indispensable
C) indispens ble
D) indispensabe
23 Identify the CORRECTLY spelt word.
A) Quiascent
B) Slipsehod
C) Ramificasion
D) Impermeable
24 Choose the correct statement:
A) The boy gave his examination.
B) The boy took his examination.
C) The teacher took his examination.
D) The boy gave away the examination.
25 Correct the incorrect statement : How gentle person Mr. Kapoor is!
A) How gentle a person Mr. Kapoor is!
B) How gentle the person Mr. Kapoor is!
C) How gentle person the Mr. Kapoor is!
D) How a gentle person Mr. Kapoor is!
26 Fill in the blank with present participle : I met a boy _______ a box of chocolates.
A) carried
B) carrying
C) was carrying
D) had carrying
27 They ______________ her and trusted her for years
A) know
B) had known
C) knew
D) known
28 Who was the first Recipient of the Aadhaar Card in India?
A) Sunpreet Kaur
B) Ranjani Sonawane
C) Surya Menon
D) Nitin Gadkari
29 Arun said, "This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother". Who is Arun to the girl?
A) Father-in-law
B) Grandfather
C) Husband
D) Father
30 A is the father of B, C is the daughter of B, D is the brother of B, E is the son of A. What is the relationship between C and E?
A) Niece and uncle
B) Brother and sister
C) Cousins
D) Uncle and aunt
31 A husband and a wife had five married sons and each of them had four children. How many members are there in the family?
A) 30
B) 32
C) 36
D) 40
32 What should come in place of the question mark ‘?’ in the following number series? 60, 40, 50, ?, 180, 460
A) 75
B) 95
C) 65
D) 85
33 What should come in the place of (?) in the given series?: 42,46,58,78,106,?
A) 152
B) 142
C) 144
D) 178
34 The following questions are based on five three digit numbers given below: 453 619 574 471 372. If in each number, all the three digits are arranged in ascending order within the number, which of thefollowing will be the se
A) 453
B) 574
C) 471
D) 619
35 Divide 16.2 kg in the ratio of 2:7 ____
A) 12.6 : 2.6
B) 7.2 : 9.0
C) 9.0 : 7.2
D) 3.6 : 12.6
36 60 candidates appear in an examination. The average of the marks is 25. The average marks of the candidate who pass is 27 and the average of those who fail is 15. Find the number of candidate who pass ___
A) 50
B) 48
C) 45
D) 10
37 Mahesh and Ramesh started partnership. They invested Rs 4000 and Rs 6000 respectively. After a year there was a profit of Rs 1000. How much shall Mahesh get?
A) Rs 600
B) Rs 500
C) Rs 400
D) Rs 800
38 Find the simple interest of Rs 10000 for 4 months at 3 percent per month.
A) Rs 2400
B) Rs 800
C) Rs 1200
D) Rs 1500
39 Internet Banking is an example of ---
A) Electronic fund transfer (EFT)
B) Electronic Data Processing (EDP)
C) EBCDIC
D) Electronic Financial Accounting
40 Digital Computer is a computer --
A) that works with discrete quantities
B) that works with analog quantities
C) that works with calculator
D) that works with internet connectivity
41 HTTP (Hyper Text Transport Protocol) is --
A) internet protocol that defines how a Web Serverresponds to request for files made via anchors and URLs
B) Computer Quiz
C) Pertaining to the techniques/media/devices used for
D) Firewall system that protect the computer
42 Following is not the example of Network --
A) LAN
B) WAN
C) Internet
D) Pendrive
43 The set of computer programs, procedures, and associated documentation related to the effective operation of a computer system is referred as ---
A) Software
B) Hardware
C) Hardcopy
D) Softcopy
44 Salary is one of the ________
A) Direct Expenses
B) Non Cash Expenses
C) Capital Expences
D) Revenue Expenses
45 What are Outstanding Expenses?
A) Expenses which are not paid off in the current balance sheet.
B) The necessary purchases that keep a business going from day-to-day.
C) Type of expense that is due but has not been paid.
D) None of the above
46 What is Bank Overdraft?
A) A document used by a company's accounts payable department containing the supporting documents for an invoice.
B) A negotiable instrument where payment is guaranteed by the issuing bank.
C) A negotiable instrument similar to a bill of exchange.
D) A line of credit that covers your transactions if your bank account balance drops below zero
47 Indian Accounting Standards are prepared by
A) SEBI
B) RBI
C) ICAI
D) Ministry of Finance
48 An audit which is conducted between two annual audit is known as ---
A) Periodical Audit
B) Standard Audit
C) Interim Audit
D) Operational Audit
49 PFRDA Stands for
A) Provident Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
B) Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
C) Protection Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
D) Personal Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
50 The Skill India mission was launched in which year?
A) 2011
B) 2015
C) 2014
D) 2016
51 According to NEP 2020, multiple entry-exit is possible during which level…
A) Higher Secondary
B) Undergraduate
C) Post Graduate
D) Doctoral Studies
52 According to NEP 2020, how will the structure of the school education system change from the 10+2 format?
A) 3+4+3+5
B) 5+2+3+5
C) 5+4+3+4
D) 5+3+3+4
53 National Education Policy preceded NEP 2020 in the year
A) 1986
B) 2008
C) 2015
D) 1979
54 Ministry of education was renamed as ‘Ministry of HRD’ in which year?
A) 1956
B) 1975
C) 1985
D) 1989
55 Who among the following chaired ‘Committee for the Draft National Education Policy 2019’?
A) Dr. Bibek Debroy
B) Vivek Pandit
C) K M Soni
D) Dr K Kasturirangan
56 In which year the first National Education Policy was announced in India?
A) 1950
B) 1975
C) 1968
D) 1955
57 Up to which age bracket the children are included in Right to Education Act as per NEP 2020
A) 6 to 18 years
B) 3 to 18 years
C) 4 to 16 years
D) 5 to 15 years
58 Who was the First Education Minister of Ministry of Education of India after renaming it from ministry of HRD?
A) Dharmendra Pradhan
B) Prakash Javadekar
C) Ramesh Pokhriyal Nishank
D) Smuti Irani
59 Which state government become the first Indian state, that has implemented the NEP 2020?
A) Gujarat
B) Karnataka
C) Assam
D) Maharashtra
60 On which date international education day is celebrated?
A) 24 January
B) 5 September
C) 2 October
D) 14 April
61 According to NEP 2020, the Gross Enrolment Ratio in higher education is to be raised by what percentage?
A) 40 percent
B) 50 percent
C) 60 percent
D) 75 percent
62 What is the full form of ABC as per the NEP 2020?
A) Academic Bank Credit
B) American Bank of Credit
C) Annual Budget Count
D) Academic Board of Curriculam
63 As per NEP 2020, what is the full form of ‘PARAKH’?
A) Performance Assessment Review and Analysis of Knowledge for Holistic Development
B) Performance and Review Academic Knowledge of Humanity
C) Pure Assessment Review and Knowledge Hindi
D) Performance and Review for Knowledge in Holistics
64 Jan Dhan Yojana is a National Mission to help BPL people in getting :
A) Education
B) Employment
C) Finance for small business
D) Access to various financial schemes
65 National Forensic Sciences University is _______
A) State University
B) Deemed to be University
C) Private University
D) Institution of National Importance
66 Which Article of Indian Constitution provides protection to Public servants against arbitrary dismissal or removal ?
A) Article 320
B) Article 315
C) Article 314
D) Article 311
67 As per National Credit Framework, the Time Duration for acquiring 1 Credit for the teaching learning under the head of Experiential Learning including relevant experience and professional levels
A) 1 Credit = 4 to 5 hours
B) 1 Credit = 2 hours
C) 1 Credit = 1 hour
D) 1 Credit = 40-45 hours
68 A Statutory Body namely the "Pharmacy Council of India" is a part of which ministry ?
A) Ministry of Food and Technology
B) Ministry of Education
C) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
D) Ministry of Home
69 The Statutory Body of Government of India which has mandate to develop, standardize and regulate education and training courses at various levels in the field of Rehabilitation and Special Education.
A) Rehabilitation Council of India
B) Ministry of Education
C) Ministry of Skill Development
D) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
70 Every Award of a Lok Adalat is deemed to be
A) Order of District Collector
B) Order of Income Tax Commissioner
C) Decree of Civil Court
D) (a) and (b)
71 The word ‘Ombudsman’ is derived from
A) French administration
B) British Administration
C) Swedish Administration
D) German Administration
72 Which is not considered as a function of a NSS Program Officer?
A) Organiser
B) Educator
C) Motivator
D) Personal Guide
73 Which is not Institution of National Importance declared by the Government of India?
A) National Forensic Sciences University
B) Nalanda University
C) Footwear Design and Development Institute
D) Vaikuntha Mehta National Institute of Cooperative Management
74 An excellence center, is a team, a shared facility or an entity that provides leadership, best practices, research, support, or training for a focus area is called
A) Institute of Eminence
B) Centre of Excellence
C) Institution of National Importance
D) Centre for Development
75 When a limited or open tender results in only one effective offer, it shall be treated as a?
A) limited tender contract
B) open tender contract
C) single tender contract
D) rate contract
76 Code of Integrity is mentioned in which Rule of GFR 2017?
A) Rule 175 (1)
B) Rule 144 (4)
C) Rule 75
D) Rule 211
77 What stands for "GeM"
A) Government Money
B) Government e-marketing
C) Government e-market Place
D) Governance of e-market
78 Which one of these is not a type of Lok Adalat
A) Students Dispute Lok Adalat
B) National level Lok Adalat
C) Permanent Lok Adalat
D) Mega Lok Adalat
79 As per GFR the purchase of goods on each occasion may be made on the recommendations of a duly constituted Local Purchase Committee costing
A) Above Rs 10,000 up Rs 1,00,000
B) Above Rs 15,000 up Rs 1,50,000
C) Above Rs 25,000 up Rs 1,50,000
D) Above Rs 25,000 up Rs 2,50,000
80 What stands for "CPPP"
A) Central Public Procurement Portal
B) Centralised Purchase and Payment Portal
C) Central Purchase and Public Portal
D) Common Purchase and Payment Portal
81 Proprietary Article Certificate is applicable in
A) Limited Tender Enquiry
B) Advertised Tender Enquiry
C) Single Tender Enquiry
D) Two Bid Enquiry Tender
82 In case of advance payment to a State or Central Government agency or a Public Sector Undertaking, it should not exceed :
A) 20% of the contract value
B) 25% of the contract value
C) 40% of the contract value
D) 50% of the contract value
83 The Appeal in case of RTI is be made to:
A) Central Information Commission
B) Public Information Officer
C) Assistant Public Information Officer
D) Head of the Organisation
84 The Right to Information Act 2005 replaced which Act?
A) Information Technology Act, 2000
B) Freedom of Information Act, 2002
C) Delimination Act 2000
D) Freedom of Speech Act 2008
85 Which is not considered as a core responsibility of UGC
A) Formation of regulations for minimim educational standards
B) Determination and maintenance of teaching, examination and research standards in umiversities
C) Promtion and Coordination of University education
D) Framing rules for centralised admissions in all Central Universities and other Institutions of National Importance
86 What is the age criteria for a person to file an RTI application?
A) 18 years and above
B) 21 years for girls and 18 years for boys
C) 16 years and above
D) No Age Bar
87 Under which section of RTI Act, a public authority is not under obligation to furnish the information disclosureof which would prejudicially affect the sovereignty and integrity of India
A) Section 8 (1) (a)
B) Section 8 (2) (f)
C) Section 12 (2) (b)
D) Section 10 (3) (a)
88 Which type of leave is applicable for Research work, writing text books & visiting industrial concerns of Govt, University, Industry or Govt Research Laboratories in India/ Abroad
A) Sabbatical Leave
B) Earned Leave
C) Study Leave
D) Extra ordinary leave
89 What Stands for APAAR
A) Automatic Progress and Academic Report
B) Automated Permanent Academic Account Registry
C) Academic Performance and Administrative Report
D) Academic performance and Academic Regulations
90 In alignment with NEP 2020 and the NCrF, the APAAR ID embodies the vision of:
A) Students registration with UGC and National Eductaion Portal
B) Students ID for Academic Performance Index
C) One Nation, One Student ID
D) Students link to Aadhar Card
91 The first Indian University that was established in the year 1857____
A) University of Mumbai
B) Nalanda University
C) University of Culcutta (Kolkata)
D) University of Madras
92 In the case of a Government servant retiring in accordance with the provisions of these rules before completing qualifying service of ten years, the amount of service gratuity shall be calculated :
A) at the rate of one month's emoluments for every completed six monthly period of qualifying service
B) at the rate of half month's emoluments for every completed six monthly period of qualifying service
C) at the rate of half month's emoluments for every completed twelve monthly period of qualifyingservice
D) at the rate of total basic salary for the number of years service completed
93 As per Rule 48A of the CCS (Pension) Rules, 1972, the government employee may retire from the service after giving 3 months notice if he/she completed minimum :
A) 20 years of service
B) 18 years of service
C) 25 years of service
D) 30 years of service
94 As per the guidelines issued by Government of India vide OM No. 27/4/67(")-Estt.(SCT) dated 24.09.1968, and OM No 36036 /3/2018 -Estt.(Res.) dated 15/05/2018, the reservations are to be provided for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in all temporary
A) if the recruitment is for the period of 1 year and above
B) except the appointments which are for the period of less than 45 days
C) if the recruitment is for the period of 11 months and above
D) if the recruitment is for the period of 180 days and above
95 New Pension Scheme is now regulated under which Act?
A) PFRDA Act 2013
B) Pension Act
C) Gratuity Act
D) CCS Rule
96 As per NPS Scheme Employee contribution is @_____% of salary and DA with matching contrbution @ ____% by the government w.e.f. 01/04/2019
A) 12 % by employee and 12 % by employer
B) 10 % by employee and 12 % by employer
C) 10 % by employee and 14 % by employer
D) 10 % by employee and 15 % by employer
97 Which of the Labor law is enacted by central government and enforced both by Central and and State Governments
A) The Contract Labor (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970
B) The Factories Act, 1948
C) The Trade Unions Act, 1926
D) The Children (Pledging of Labour) Act 1938
98 Election Commission and UPSC are considered as a part of ______
A) Public Sector Undertaking
B) Statutory Body
C) Autonomous Body
D) Constitutional Body
99 Each Section in the Government organisation is not required to keep records of important subjects dealt with by it as a part of knowledge management system of the department
A) Precedent Book
B) Standard Process Sheets
C) Transcript of important discussions and minutes
D) Office Memorundums issued by DOPT
200 What stands for "NAAC"
A) National Assessment and Accriditation Council
B) National Academic and Administrative Council
C) National Academic and Advisory Council
D) National Assessment of Academic Curriculam
Question no 34 is dropped
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